Part one Please answer part one in 2 pages Chapter 5 -What is love? Discuss wh

Part one
Please answer part one in 2 pages
Chapter 5
-What is love? Discuss what is meant by the tern love
-Discuss the three aspects of love. Provide examples
-Discuss the three types of attachment styles(I.e like insurance)
Chapter 6
-what do we mean by finding a partner?
-why are people delaying marrying?
(- i.e Women becoming better educated)
Why do we marry?
Why do we Marry down?
What is the difference between Married and unmarried (people)?
Chapter 7
Discuss same sex living. Who is most likely between men and women?
What are the origins of homosexuality?
Chapter 8
What are unrealistic expectations?
Discuss boundary problems
What are some communication problems couples have?
Discussed theThe term self disclosure. Should we tell our partner everything? Why/ why not?
What are the characteristics of a strong partner relationship?
Please explain gender differences in communicating
-compared to men women tend to be:
How could you go about improving communication in a relationship?
Is it healthy to have secrets in a relationship? Yes/no why/why not
Part 2
Please answer part two in 5 pages
1. Given all the issues, uncertainties and problems impacting marriage in America ,Why do Americans continue to marry?and What are some of the predictors that a marriage or a relationship will last?
2.Unmarried couples tend to have the same problems that married couples have.Please explain why?
3.Breaking ups are often difficult both for the person who wants to breakup and for the person who breaking up with you.
A If you want to breakup: What should you do?
B. If your partner wants to bread up with you, what should you do?
4.What are some of the conditions that have lowered the marriage rate in America

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Please answer part one in 2 pages
Chapter 5
-What is love? Discuss wh appeared first on nursingessayswriter.com.

Instructions The weekly journal is an opportunity for you to integrate the conte

Instructions
The weekly journal is an opportunity for you to integrate the content of this module. Respond to the prompts below.
What is your understanding of what it means to be a culturally competent social worker working with LGBTQ people?
What are some of the challenges (include both personal and professional) you may encounter when working with this population?
In the final chapter of Pedagogy of the Oppressed, Freire discusses how to create change. What implications does his theory have for creating social change for the LGBTQ population? What would he say needs to be done to accomplish change for this population?
Requirements
In order to successfully complete this assignment, you need to meet the following requirements:
Submit your responses to the above questions by the posted due date.
Your responses should be a well-developed, double-spaced essay of 750-1000 words total.
Your weekly journal assignments will be shared only with your instructor.
You will be graded based on the Weekly Journal Rubric

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The weekly journal is an opportunity for you to integrate the conte appeared first on nursingessayswriter.com.

A director of research at an acute care hospital observes an increase in hospita

A director of research at an acute care hospital observes an increase in hospital lengths of stay (los). The director determines that this is harmful to patients as well as financially harmful to the hospital. The dataset hospital1 contains data on a study the director conducted to determine what factors are related to longer lengths of stay.
Refer to your textbook and also the R screencast videos on this module’s lecture page for examples.
Calculate a t-test to test the null hypothesis that patients above and below the age of 80 (age80) have equal lengths of stay (los).
Using the describeBy() function in the psych package, create a table comparing “agecat” to “los.” Interpret the findings you see. Which group has the highest mean/average length of stay (los)?
Use ANOVA to test if these differences are significant.
Can you reject the null hypothesis? Explain how you know.
Conduct a TukeyHSD post-hoc to compare groups.
Which groups are significantly different?
Using the cor.test() function, test for a relationship between “los” and instrumental activities of daily living (tiadlmean).
Copy your table and findings to a Word document; use size-10 Courier font.
Upload your findings.
Requirements
Upload your data table and your findings by the deadline posted on this page.
Your work should be submitted in a Word document with 10-point Courier font.
This assignment will be graded on the basis of completion.

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Assessment Examination

Comp-XM Exam Overview

Each student becomes the CEO of their own “Andrews” Company.
Students individually compete against three computer teams.
Students take over a unique, dominant company with significant weaknesses.
Comp-XM Exam Scenario:

As CEO of your company, the Andrews Corporation, you will make four sets of decisions. Your competition, Baldwin, Chester and Digby, are run by computer teams.

All participants compete against a standard set of competitors, but each scenario is structured differently. As with your current simulation, the quality of your decisions directly affects the position of your company. Your individual simulation decision-making performance is evaluated using the Balanced Scorecard.

Introduction:

The Comp-XM® examination is an integrated assessment tool.
An extension of the Foundation® simulation that will allow students to individually
demonstrate their business skills and acumen.

There are two parts to the Comp-XM® Examination
1) A business simulation (similar to the current simulation)

2) A series of quizzes/questions presented called “Board Queries.”

There are four unique Market Segments:

Note: “Thrift” and “Core” (similar to Low-Tech). “Nano” and “Elite” (similar to High-Tech).

Thrift Segment

Buying Criteria

Core Segment

Buying Criteria

Nano Segment

Buying Criteria

Elite Segment

Buying Criteria

The competitive landscape is not even:
Each company begins from a different starting point.
Each company has four existing products.
Students compete against 3 computer-managed companies.
*

How is it graded?

There are 2 grading components.
*

The Balanced Scorecard examines how well your company is managed.

4 Perspectives:

Finance
Internal Business Process
Customer
Learning and Growth

1: Balanced Scorecard (50%)

2: Board Queries (50%)

Exam questions (Queries) from the Board of Directors.
5 question sets (Number of questions each round may vary).
Questions are unique to your particular environment.
Strategic Analysis
Finance
Marketing
Accounting
Operations
Quality Initiatives
HR & TQM
Situation Analysis
Specific questions may cover:

Sample Question #1 of 3: Key: Analyze the “Inquirer” to answer.

Sample #2 of 3: How to answer this?

Sample #3 of 3: How to answer this?

Question Value: 15 Pts
Your Competitive Intelligence team reports that a wave of product liability lawsuits is likely to cause Digby to pull the product Daft entirely off the market this year. Assume Digby scraps all capacity and inventory this round, completely writing off those assets and escrowing the proceeds to a settlement fund. Assume these lawsuits will have no effect on any other products of Digby or other companies.

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Consider only products primarily in the Core segment last year

There are two parts to the Comp-XM® Examination
1) A business simulation (similar to the current simulation)

2) A series of quizzes/questions presented called “Board Queries.”

There are four unique Market Segments:

Note: “Thrift” and “Core” (similar to Low-Tech). “Nano” and “Elite” (similar to High-Tech).

Thrift Segment

Buying Criteria

Core Segment

Buying Criteria

Nano Segment

Buying Criteria

Elite Segment

Buying Criteria

The competitive landscape is not even:
Each company begins from a different starting point.
Each company has four existing products.
Students compete against 3 computer-managed companies.
*

How is it graded?

There are 2 grading components.
*

The Balanced Scorecard examines how well your company is managed.

4 Perspectives:

Finance
Internal Business Process
Customer
Learning and Growth

1: Balanced Scorecard (50%)

2: Board Queries (50%)

Sample Question #1 of 3: Key: Analyze the “Inquirer” to answer.

Sample #2 of 3: How to answer this?

Sample #3 of 3: How to answer this?

Question: Without Digby’s product Daft, how much can the industry currently produce in the Core segment? Consider only products primarily in the Core segment last year. Ignore current inventories. Figures are in thousands (000).

Step 1: Per the Production Report (FT), find the products that exist in the “Core” Segment and the production capacity available for each of these products.

Step 2: Combine all potential production for the Core segment.

Note: Be sure to consider that existing capacity can be used to produce double the amount of product (due to second shift potential).

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Combine all potential production for the Core segment.

Examination

Spring Semester 2013

Comp-XM Exam Overview

As CEO of your company, the Andrews Corporation, you will make four sets of decisions. Your competition, Baldwin, Chester and Digby, are run by computer teams.

Introduction:

The Comp-XM® examination is an integrated assessment tool.
An extension of the Foundation® simulation that will allow students to individually
demonstrate their business skills and acumen.

There are two parts to the Comp-XM® Examination
1) A business simulation (similar to the current simulation)

2) A series of quizzes/questions presented called “Board Queries.”

There are four unique Market Segments:

Note: “Thrift” and “Core” (similar to Low-Tech). “Nano” and “Elite” (similar to High-Tech).

Thrift Segment

Buying Criteria

Core Segment

Buying Criteria

Nano Segment

Buying Criteria

Elite Segment

Buying Criteria

The competitive landscape is not even:
Each company begins from a different starting point.
Each company has four existing products.
Students compete against 3 computer-managed companies.
*

How is it graded?

There are 2 grading components.
*

The Balanced Scorecard examines how well your company is managed.

4 Perspectives:

Finance
Internal Business Process
Customer
Learning and Growth

1: Balanced Scorecard (50%)

2: Board Queries (50%)

Sample Question #1 of 3: Key: Analyze the “Inquirer” to answer.

Sample #2 of 3: How to answer this?

Sample #3 of 3: How to answer this?

Step 1: Per the Production Report (FT), find the products that exist in the “Core” Segment and the production capacity available for each of these products.

Step 2: Combine all potential production for the Core segment.

Note: Be sure to consider that existing capacity can be used to produce double the amount of product (due to second shift potential).

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decision-making performance

compete against three computer teams.
Students take over a unique, dominant company with significant weaknesses.
Comp-XM Exam Scenario:

As CEO of your company, the Andrews Corporation, you will make four sets of decisions. Your competition, Baldwin, Chester and Digby, are run by computer teams.

Introduction:

The Comp-XM® examination is an integrated assessment tool.
An extension of the Foundation® simulation that will allow students to individually
demonstrate their business skills and acumen.

There are two parts to the Comp-XM® Examination
1) A business simulation (similar to the current simulation)

2) A series of quizzes/questions presented called “Board Queries.”

There are four unique Market Segments:

Note: “Thrift” and “Core” (similar to Low-Tech). “Nano” and “Elite” (similar to High-Tech).

Thrift Segment

Buying Criteria

Core Segment

Buying Criteria

Nano Segment

Buying Criteria

Elite Segment

Buying Criteria

The competitive landscape is not even:
Each company begins from a different starting point.
Each company has four existing products.
Students compete against 3 computer-managed companies.
*

How is it graded?

There are 2 grading components.
*

The Balanced Scorecard examines how well your company is managed.

4 Perspectives:

Finance
Internal Business Process
Customer
Learning and Growth

1: Balanced Scorecard (50%)

2: Board Queries (50%)

Sample Question #1 of 3: Key: Analyze the “Inquirer” to answer.

Sample #2 of 3: How to answer this?

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The Aggregate Supply Curve Relating The Price Level To Real GDP Has Three Distinguishing Segments. Which One Of The Following.

The Aggregate Supply Curve Relating The Price Level To Real GDP Has Three Distinguishing Segments. Which One Of The Following.distinguishing segments. Which one of the following indicates the segments? A) The horizontal segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. B) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the full employment of all resources. The vertical segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. C) The horizontal segment reflects the full employment of all resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the availability of unused resources. D) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The downward-sloping segment reflects decreasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. E) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. 2. Fiscal policy is government action to influence aggregate demand and in turn to influence the level of real GDP and the price level, through: A) expanding and contracting the money supply. B) regulation of net exports. C) changes in government spending and/or tax revenues. D) encouraging businesses to invest. 3. “It would be an undue hardship to require people whose income is below $15,000 per year to pay income taxes.” This statement reflects which of the following principles for a tax? A) Benefits-received. B) Inexpensive-to-collect. C) Ability-to-pay. D) Fairness of contribution. 4. Exhibit 14-6 Aggregate supply curve nar004-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-6, the aggregate supply curve becomes vertical at GDP = $1,200 because: A) there are no more workers available at any wage rate to increase real GDP. B) the price level remains constant. C) the only workers available would demand higher wage rates. D) the economy is experiencing low employment and low production. E) the Treasury is no longer allowed to explain away the deficit with creative accounting 5. Exhibit 14-8 Aggregate demand and supply nar005-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-8, if aggregate demand shifts from AD3 to AD4, real GDP will: A) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. B) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 170. C) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 100 to 140. D) not change, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. E) rise from $4.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. 6. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is computed as the change in consumption divided by the change in: A) GDP. B) income. C) saving. D) none of the above 7. Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve? A) Government spending (G). B) Investment (I). C) Consumption (C). D) Net exports (X – M). E) Saving. 8. Find the tax multiplier if the MPC is 0.75. A) -4. B) -3. C) 0.33. D) 3. E) 4. 9. Exhibit 14-2 Aggregate supply and demand curves nar001-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-2, the change in equilibrium from E1 to E2 represents: A) cost-push inflation. B) demand-pull inflation. C) price-push inflation. D) wage-push inflation. 10. If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.50, the value of the spending multiplier is: A) 5. B) 1. C) 2. D) 5. 11. The nation has its own MPC. When national income increases from $300 billion to $400 billion, national consumption increases from $300 billion to $360 billion. At Y = $400 billion, the MPC is: A) 0.2. B) 0.5. C) 0.6. D) 0.67. E) 1.33. 12. A rightward shift in the aggregate demand curve can be caused by an increase in: A) the price level. B) business investment spending. C) taxes. D) production costs. 13. After 1970, the share of federal spending allocated to national defense: A) declined sharply, while the share allocated to income security increased substantially. B) rose sharply, while the share allocated to income security declined substantially. C) was relatively constant, while the share allocated to income security declined modestly. D) declined modestly, while the share allocated to income security was relatively constant. 14. If a person is taxed $1,000 on an income of $10,000, taxed $2,000 on an income of $20,000, and taxed $3,000 on an income of $30,000, this person is paying a (an): A) progressive tax. B) regressive tax. C) proportional tax. D) poll tax. E) excise tax. 15. If an inflationary boom exists, the appropriate fiscal policy is to: A) increase the budget deficit. B) increase government spending and hold taxes constant. C) decrease government spending and/or raise taxes. D) hold government spending constant and decrease taxes. 16. The aggregate supply curve reflects the relationship between the price: A) of a particular good and the quantity supplied by all firms producing that good. B) of a particular good and the quantity supplied by the aggregate economy. C) level and the quantity supplied of all goods in the economy. D) level and the quantity of all goods purchased in the economy. 17. Automatic stabilizers are government programs that: A) exaggerate the ups and downs in aggregate demand without legislative action. B) bring expenditures and revenues automatically into balance without legislative action. C) shift the budget toward a deficit when the economy slows but shift it toward a surplus during an expansion. D) increase tax collections automatically during a recession. 18. A decrease in aggregate supply will cause the price level to: A) rise and GDP to fall. B) rise and GDP to rise. C) rise and the unemployment rate to fall. D) fall and GDP to rise. E) fall and the unemployment rate to rise. 19. Exhibit 14-3 Aggregate supply and demand curves nar002-1.jpg The shift from AS1 to AS2 in Exhibit 14-3 could be caused by a (an): A) sudden increase in the price of oil. B) increase in input prices for most firms. C) increase in workers’ wages. D) all of the above. 20. The interest-rate effect is the impact on real GDP caused by the relationship between the price level and the interest rate. A) direct B) independent C) linear D) inverse 21. The Keynesian analysis of fiscal policy argues that: A) fiscal policy should generally be expansionary except during periods of economic recession. B) fiscal policy should generally be restrictive except during inflationary booms. C) the federal budget should be balanced annually except during war. D) the federal budget should be used to maintain aggregate demand at a level consistent with full employment. 22. The real balances effect predicts that higher prices: A) make people worse off by reducing the value of their wealth, leading them to save more and spend less. B) make people worse off by reducing the value of their wealth, leading them to save less and spend more. C) make people better off by increasing the value of their wealth, leading them to save less and spend more. D) increase borrowing, leading to higher interest rates and less investment. E) make domestic goods relatively more expensive, increasing the demand for domestic goods and decreasing the demand for foreign goods. 23. When households’ marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, the size of the spending multiplier: A) also increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. D) reacts unpredictably. 24. The Laffer curve is representative of which of the following schools? A) Supply-side school. B) Rational expectations school. C) Keynesians. D) Neo-Keynesians. E) Classical school. 25. Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve? A) Consumption (C). B) Investment (I). C) Government spending (G). D) Net exports (X – M). E) All of the above are components. 26. Keynesian analysis stresses that a tax cut that increases the government’s budget deficit or reduces its budget surplus: A) is appropriate during a period of inflation. B) will increase the money supply. C) will stimulate aggregate supply and, thereby, promote employment. D) will stimulate aggregate demand and, thereby, promote employment. 27. In the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model, A) the factors that cause the demand curves in both models to slope downward are the same. B) the factors that cause the supply curves in both models to slope upward are the same. C) the upward-sloping aggregate demand curve intersects the downward-sloping aggregate supply curve to determine the economy’s price level and GDP. D) the upward-sloping aggregate supply curve intersects the downward-sloping aggregate demand curve to determine the economy’s price level and GDP. E) the price level never changes even with shifts in aggregate demand and aggregate supply. 28. The aggregate demand curve: A) would be little affected by a technological advancement. B) shifts to the right when spending decreases. C) shifts to the left when there is a decrease in taxes. D) cannot move independently of the aggregate supply curve. E) shifts to the right when there is an expectation that future income will fall. 29. Because of the automatic stabilizers, a decline in the level of economic activity will cause: A) a reduction in tax revenues collected. B) an increase in government expenditures. C) a greater budget deficit. D) all of the above. 30. In the classical range of the aggregate supply curve, greater spending for consumer and investment goods results in: A)

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Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve?

Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve? supply curve relating the price level to real GDP has three distinguishing segments. Which one of the following indicates the segments? A) The horizontal segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. B) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the full employment of all resources. The vertical segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. C) The horizontal segment reflects the full employment of all resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects the increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the availability of unused resources. D) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The downward-sloping segment reflects decreasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. E) The horizontal segment reflects the availability of unused resources. The upward-sloping segment reflects increasing pressure on the price level as firms bid for resources. The vertical segment reflects the full employment of all resources. 2. Fiscal policy is government action to influence aggregate demand and in turn to influence the level of real GDP and the price level, through: A) expanding and contracting the money supply. B) regulation of net exports. C) changes in government spending and/or tax revenues. D) encouraging businesses to invest. 3. “It would be an undue hardship to require people whose income is below $15,000 per year to pay income taxes.” This statement reflects which of the following principles for a tax? A) Benefits-received. B) Inexpensive-to-collect. C) Ability-to-pay. D) Fairness of contribution. 4. Exhibit 14-6 Aggregate supply curve nar004-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-6, the aggregate supply curve becomes vertical at GDP = $1,200 because: A) there are no more workers available at any wage rate to increase real GDP. B) the price level remains constant. C) the only workers available would demand higher wage rates. D) the economy is experiencing low employment and low production. E) the Treasury is no longer allowed to explain away the deficit with creative accounting 5. Exhibit 14-8 Aggregate demand and supply nar005-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-8, if aggregate demand shifts from AD3 to AD4, real GDP will: A) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. B) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 170. C) rise from $7.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 100 to 140. D) not change, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. E) rise from $4.0 to $8.0, and the price level will rise from 120 to 140. 6. The marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is computed as the change in consumption divided by the change in: A) GDP. B) income. C) saving. D) none of the above 7. Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve? A) Government spending (G). B) Investment (I). C) Consumption (C). D) Net exports (X – M). E) Saving. 8. Find the tax multiplier if the MPC is 0.75. A) -4. B) -3. C) 0.33. D) 3. E) 4. 9. Exhibit 14-2 Aggregate supply and demand curves nar001-1.jpg In Exhibit 14-2, the change in equilibrium from E1 to E2 represents: A) cost-push inflation. B) demand-pull inflation. C) price-push inflation. D) wage-push inflation. 10. If the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is 0.50, the value of the spending multiplier is: A) 5. B) 1. C) 2. D) 5. 11. The nation has its own MPC. When national income increases from $300 billion to $400 billion, national consumption increases from $300 billion to $360 billion. At Y = $400 billion, the MPC is: A) 0.2. B) 0.5. C) 0.6. D) 0.67. E) 1.33. 12. A rightward shift in the aggregate demand curve can be caused by an increase in: A) the price level. B) business investment spending. C) taxes. D) production costs. 13. After 1970, the share of federal spending allocated to national defense: A) declined sharply, while the share allocated to income security increased substantially. B) rose sharply, while the share allocated to income security declined substantially. C) was relatively constant, while the share allocated to income security declined modestly. D) declined modestly, while the share allocated to income security was relatively constant. 14. If a person is taxed $1,000 on an income of $10,000, taxed $2,000 on an income of $20,000, and taxed $3,000 on an income of $30,000, this person is paying a (an): A) progressive tax. B) regressive tax. C) proportional tax. D) poll tax. E) excise tax. 15. If an inflationary boom exists, the appropriate fiscal policy is to: A) increase the budget deficit. B) increase government spending and hold taxes constant. C) decrease government spending and/or raise taxes. D) hold government spending constant and decrease taxes. 16. The aggregate supply curve reflects the relationship between the price: A) of a particular good and the quantity supplied by all firms producing that good. B) of a particular good and the quantity supplied by the aggregate economy. C) level and the quantity supplied of all goods in the economy. D) level and the quantity of all goods purchased in the economy. 17. Automatic stabilizers are government programs that: A) exaggerate the ups and downs in aggregate demand without legislative action. B) bring expenditures and revenues automatically into balance without legislative action. C) shift the budget toward a deficit when the economy slows but shift it toward a surplus during an expansion. D) increase tax collections automatically during a recession. 18. A decrease in aggregate supply will cause the price level to: A) rise and GDP to fall. B) rise and GDP to rise. C) rise and the unemployment rate to fall. D) fall and GDP to rise. E) fall and the unemployment rate to rise. 19. Exhibit 14-3 Aggregate supply and demand curves nar002-1.jpg The shift from AS1 to AS2 in Exhibit 14-3 could be caused by a (an): A) sudden increase in the price of oil. B) increase in input prices for most firms. C) increase in workers’ wages. D) all of the above. 20. The interest-rate effect is the impact on real GDP caused by the relationship between the price level and the interest rate. A) direct B) independent C) linear D) inverse 21. The Keynesian analysis of fiscal policy argues that: A) fiscal policy should generally be expansionary except during periods of economic recession. B) fiscal policy should generally be restrictive except during inflationary booms. C) the federal budget should be balanced annually except during war. D) the federal budget should be used to maintain aggregate demand at a level consistent with full employment. 22. The real balances effect predicts that higher prices: A) make people worse off by reducing the value of their wealth, leading them to save more and spend less. B) make people worse off by reducing the value of their wealth, leading them to save less and spend more. C) make people better off by increasing the value of their wealth, leading them to save less and spend more. D) increase borrowing, leading to higher interest rates and less investment. E) make domestic goods relatively more expensive, increasing the demand for domestic goods and decreasing the demand for foreign goods. 23. When households’ marginal propensity to consume (MPC) increases, the size of the spending multiplier: A) also increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. D) reacts unpredictably. 24. The Laffer curve is representative of which of the following schools? A) Supply-side school. B) Rational expectations school. C) Keynesians. D) Neo-Keynesians. E) Classical school. 25. Which of the following is not a component of the aggregate demand curve? A) Consumption (C). B) Investment (I). C) Government spending (G). D) Net exports (X – M). E) All of the above are components. 26. Keynesian analysis stresses that a tax cut that increases the government’s budget deficit or reduces its budget surplus: A) is appropriate during a period of inflation. B) will increase the money supply. C) will stimulate aggregate supply and, thereby, promote employment. D) will stimulate aggregate demand and, thereby, promote employment. 27. In the aggregate demand and aggregate supply model, A) the factors that cause the demand curves in both models to slope downward are the same. B) the factors that cause the supply curves in both models to slope upward are the same. C) the upward-sloping aggregate demand curve intersects the downward-sloping aggregate supply curve to determine the economy’s price level and GDP. D) the upward-sloping aggregate supply curve intersects the downward-sloping aggregate demand curve to determine the economy’s price level and GDP. E) the price level never changes even with shifts in aggregate demand and aggregate supply. 28. The aggregate demand curve: A) would be little affected by a technological advancement. B) shifts to the right when spending decreases. C) shifts to the left when there is a decrease in taxes. D) cannot move independently of the aggregate supply curve. E) shifts to the right when there is an expectation that future income will fall. 29. Because of the automatic stabilizers, a decline in the level of economic activity will cause: A)

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